100 Most Important MCQs based on the Constitution of India, ideal for Judicial Services, PCS & UPSC IAS aspirants

100 Most Important MCQs based on the Constitution of India, ideal for Judicial Services, PCS & UPSC IAS aspirants. These questions cover crucial articles, doctrines, amendments, and principles frequently tested in exams.

⚖️ Top 100 Constitution of India MCQs

🔹 1–25: Fundamental Rights (Part III)

Which Article guarantees equality before the law?
a) 15 b) 14 c) 16 d) 19
Ans: b) 14
Article 21A deals with:
a) Environment Protection
b) Uniform Civil Code
c) Free and compulsory education
d) Abolition of Untouchability
Ans: c) Free and compulsory education
Freedom of Press is implicit under which Article?
a) 19(1)(a) b) 19(1)(b) c) 21 d) 32
Ans: a) 19(1)(a)
Article 22 relates to:
a) Freedom of Religion
b) Protection against arrest and detention
c) Right to Property
d) Right to Life
Ans: b) Protection against arrest and detention
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is under:
a) Article 19(1)(d)
Ans: a) Article 19(1)(d)
Which Article abolished “Untouchability”?
a) 14 b) 17 c) 15 d) 18
Ans: b) 17
Right to Property is now a:
a) Fundamental Right b) Directive Principle c) Legal Right d) None
Ans: c) Legal Right
Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the basis of:
a) Gender only
b) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth
c) Wealth and status
d) None
Ans: b)
Writs are issued under which Article?
a) 226 b) 32 c) 136 d) 227
Ans: b) 32
The “heart and soul” of the Constitution according to Dr. Ambedkar is:
a) Article 21 b) Article 32 c) Article 14 d) Article 356
Ans: b) 32

11–25: Writs, Article 20, Cultural and Religious Rights

11. Which of the following is not a writ under Article 32/226?
a) Mandamus b) Quo Warranto c) Injunction d) Certiorari
✅ Ans: c) Injunction

12. The writ of habeas corpus is issued to:
a) Release a person from unlawful detention
b) Compel public authority to perform duty
c) Transfer case from lower to higher court
d) Question legality of a public office holder
✅ Ans: a)

13. The writ of mandamus is issued to:
a) Prevent a lower court from acting
b) Enforce a public duty
c) Free an unlawfully detained person
d) Compensate for rights violation
✅ Ans: b)

14. The writ of prohibition is issued by:
a) Lower court to higher court
b) Executive to legislature
c) Higher court to lower court to stop excess jurisdiction
d) President to Parliament
✅ Ans: c)

15. Which writ tests the legality of holding a public office?
a) Mandamus b) Quo Warranto c) Habeas Corpus d) Certiorari
✅ Ans: b)

16. Which Article protects against ex post facto laws?
a) Article 14 b) Article 19 c) Article 20 d) Article 21
✅ Ans: c) Article 20

17. Double jeopardy (no person shall be punished twice for the same offence) is under:
a) Article 21 b) Article 22 c) Article 19 d) Article 20(2)
✅ Ans: d)

18. Protection against self-incrimination is provided in:
a) Article 20(3) b) Article 22 c) Article 14 d) Article 32
✅ Ans: a)

19. Which Article provides protection of life and personal liberty?
a) Article 19 b) Article 20 c) Article 21 d) Article 14
✅ Ans: c)

20. Right to free legal aid was included through:
a) Article 39A b) Article 21 c) Article 22 d) Both a and b
✅ Ans: d)

21. Cultural and educational rights of minorities are protected under:
a) Article 25–26 b) Article 29–30 c) Article 14–15 d) Article 19
✅ Ans: b)

22. No citizen shall be denied admission in a State-funded institution based on language, religion, etc. is ensured by:
a) Article 28 b) Article 29(2) c) Article 26 d) Article 30
✅ Ans: b)

23. Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions under:
a) Article 19 b) Article 26 c) Article 30 d) Article 29
✅ Ans: c)

24. Freedom of religion is guaranteed under:
a) Articles 25–28 b) Articles 14–18 c) Articles 19–22 d) Articles 29–30
✅ Ans: a)

25. Religious instruction is prohibited in institutions wholly maintained by State as per:
a) Article 27 b) Article 28(1) c) Article 29 d) Article 25
✅ Ans: b)

🔹 26–50: DPSPs, FDs, Emergency, Judiciary

Which Article contains the Uniform Civil Code?
a) Art. 44 Ans: a)
Which Part contains Directive Principles?
a) Part II b) Part IV c) Part V d) Part III
Ans: b) Part IV
Fundamental Duties were added by which Amendment?
a) 44th b) 86th c) 42nd d) 52nd
Ans: c) 42nd
Number of Fundamental Duties:
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 9
Ans: b) 11
Which Article empowers the President to declare National Emergency?
a) 356 b) 360 c) 352 d) 365
Ans: c) 352
Emergency due to failure of constitutional machinery in State:
a) Art. 352 b) Art. 356 c) Art. 360 d) Art. 365
Ans: b) 356

32–50: High Courts, Supreme Court & Judicial Powers

32. The Supreme Court of India is established under which Article?
a) Article 131 b) Article 226 c) Article 124 d) Article 214
✅ Ans: c) Article 124

33. The minimum number of judges required to hear a case involving constitutional interpretation is:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
✅ Ans: c) 5

34. Which Article provides for the appointment of Supreme Court judges?
a) Article 124 b) Article 217 c) Article 148 d) Article 233
✅ Ans: a)

35. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by:
a) Prime Minister b) Chief Justice of High Court c) President d) Parliament
✅ Ans: c) President

36. The minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court is:
a) 35 b) 40 c) No minimum age prescribed d) 45
✅ Ans: c)

37. Who can remove a Supreme Court judge?
a) President on advice of PM
b) Parliament by simple majority
c) President on a resolution passed by Parliament by special majority
d) Chief Justice of India
✅ Ans: c)

38. Article 124(4) provides for:
a) Appointment of judges
b) Impeachment of judges
c) Jurisdiction of SC
d) Salaries of judges
✅ Ans: b)

39. Which of the following is not a ground for removal of a judge?
a) Incapacity b) Misconduct c) Corruption d) Age
✅ Ans: d)

40. The High Court of a State is established under which Article?
a) 214 b) 217 c) 233 d) 312
✅ Ans: a)

41. A judge of the High Court is appointed by:
a) Chief Minister b) Prime Minister c) President d) Governor
✅ Ans: c)

42. The qualifications for a High Court judge are given in:
a) Article 217 b) Article 214 c) Article 233 d) Article 226
✅ Ans: a)

43. A High Court judge holds office until the age of:
a) 60 b) 62 c) 65 d) 70
✅ Ans: b)

44. The retirement age of a Supreme Court judge is:
a) 60 b) 62 c) 65 d) 70
✅ Ans: c)

45. Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue:
a) Ordinances b) Writs c) Law Reports d) Guidelines
✅ Ans: b)

46. The difference between Articles 32 and 226 is that:
a) 32 is available for all rights; 226 only for FRs
b) 32 is for enforcing FRs only; 226 for FRs and other rights
c) 226 can be suspended; 32 cannot
d) No difference
✅ Ans: b)

47. Who decides the number of judges in the High Court?
a) President b) Parliament c) State Government d) Governor
✅ Ans: a)

48. Which of the following High Courts has jurisdiction over more than one State?
a) Delhi HC b) Calcutta HC c) Bombay HC d) Guwahati HC
✅ Ans: d) (Jurisdiction over NE states)

49. The High Court has the power of superintendence over all subordinate courts under:
a) Article 226 b) Article 227 c) Article 228 d) Article 229
✅ Ans: b)

50. The power of judicial review of laws is conferred on:
a) Parliament only b) High Courts only
c) Both Supreme Court and High Courts d) President
✅ Ans: c)

🔹 51–75: Centre-State, Parliament, Amendments

Article 246 deals with:
a) Election Commission
b) Directive Principles
c) Division of legislative powers
Ans: c)
Union List is in which Schedule?
a) 5th b) 6th c) 7th d) 10th
Ans: c) 7th
Finance Commission is under Article:
a) 280 b) 266 c) 368 d) 112
Ans: a) 280
Which Article lays the amendment procedure?
a) 368 b) 123 c) 124 d) 131
Ans: a) 368
Schedule containing official languages:
a) 6th b) 8th c) 9th d) 12th
Ans: b) 8th
Anti-defection law is in:
a) 10th Schedule Ans: a)

57. Which of the following is the correct composition of the Parliament of India?
a) President, Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha
b) President, Prime Minister, Lok Sabha
c) President, Rajya Sabha, Council of Ministers
d) President, Lok Sabha, Council of Ministers

Answer: a) President, Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha

58. The President of India is elected by:
a) Direct election by the people
b) Indirect election by the people
c) Indirect election by an electoral college
d) Appointment by the Prime Minister

Answer: c) Indirect election by an electoral college

59. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the office of the President of India?
a) Article 51
b) Article 52
c) Article 53
d) Article 54

Answer: b) Article 52

60. Which of the following is NOT a power of the President of India?
a) Power to grant pardons
b) Power to dissolve the Rajya Sabha
c) Power to summon and prorogue the Parliament
d) Power to appoint the Prime Minister

Answer: b) Power to dissolve the Rajya Sabha

61. What is the maximum term of office for the President of India?
a) 4 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years

Answer: b) 5 years

62. The Vice-President of India is elected by:
a) The people of India
b) The members of both Houses of Parliament
c) The President
d) The Rajya Sabha

Answer: b) The members of both Houses of Parliament

63. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Legislative Assembly
d) Legislative Council

Answer: b) Rajya Sabha

64. Which Article of the Constitution of India describes the powers and functions of the President of India?
a) Article 51
b) Article 52
c) Article 53
d) Article 61

Answer: c) Article 53

65. What is the role of the Prime Minister of India as per the Constitution?
a) Head of the State
b) Head of the Government
c) Head of the Legislature
d) None of the above

Answer: b) Head of the Government

66. The Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to:
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) President
d) The public

Answer: a) Lok Sabha

67. Which of the following is responsible for advising the President of India in the exercise of his executive functions?
a) Council of Ministers
b) Chief Justice of India
c) Parliament
d) State Governors

Answer: a) Council of Ministers

68. The Union Parliament consists of:
a) The President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
b) The President and the Cabinet
c) The President, Rajya Sabha, and the Lok Sabha, but not the Cabinet
d) The President and the Council of Ministers

Answer: a) The President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

69. A Money Bill can only be introduced in which House of Parliament?
a) Rajya Sabha
b) Lok Sabha
c) Both Houses
d) Neither House

Answer: b) Lok Sabha

70. Who determines whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
a) Rajya Sabha
b) President of India
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) Prime Minister

Answer: c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

71. Which of the following is NOT considered a Money Bill under the Constitution of India?
a) A Bill related to taxation
b) A Bill related to the appropriation of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India
c) A Bill regarding the duties of customs
d) A Bill regulating the salaries of members of Parliament

Answer: d) A Bill regulating the salaries of members of Parliament

72. What is the maximum time within which the President must give assent to a Bill passed by Parliament?
a) 1 week
b) 1 month
c) 3 months
d) No time limit mentioned in the Constitution

Answer: d) No time limit mentioned in the Constitution

73. The President’s assent to a Bill is required for:
a) All types of Bills
b) Only Money Bills
c) Only Bills that affect the States
d) Only Bills that affect the Fundamental Rights

Answer: a) All types of Bills

74. A Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament must be presented to the President for assent within how many days?
a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days

Answer: b) 10 days

75. The power to remove the Vice-President of India rests with:
a) The President
b) The Prime Minister
c) The Lok Sabha
d) The Rajya Sabha

Answer: d) The Rajya Sabha

🔹 76–100: Miscellaneous, Schedules, Case Law, Doctrines

Number of Schedules in the Constitution:
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 8
Ans: b) 12
Which Article allows Ordinance by President?
a) 352 b) 123 c) 213 d) 75
Ans: b) 123
Doctrine of Basic Structure was established in:
a) A.K. Gopalan case
b) Kesavananda Bharati case
c) Golaknath case
d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: b)
Doctrine of Eclipse relates to:
a) Directive Principles
b) Pre-constitutional laws
Ans: b)
Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is provided under:
a) Article 14 b) Article 330 c) Article 341 d) Article 340
✅ Ans: b) Article 330
81. Which Article provides for reservation in Legislative Assemblies of the States for SCs and STs?
a) Article 332 b) Article 331 c) Article 342 d) Article 336
✅ Ans: a) Article 332
82. The President may specify the castes or tribes as SC/ST under:
a) Article 340 b) Article 341 & 342 c) Article 331 d) Article 330
✅ Ans: b) Article 341 & 342
83. Which Article allows the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha (now repealed)?
a) Article 330 b) Article 331 c) Article 332 d) Article 333
✅ Ans: b) Article 331
84. Who appoints the Election Commission of India?
a) Prime Minister b) Parliament c) President d) Chief Justice
✅ Ans: c) President
85. The powers and functions of the Election Commission are derived from:
a) Article 322 b) Article 324 c) Article 326 d) Article 327
✅ Ans: b) Article 324
86. The superintendence, direction, and control of elections is vested in:
a) Prime Minister b) Election Commission c) President d) Parliament
✅ Ans: b) Election Commission
87. All-India Services are dealt with under:
a) Article 312 b) Article 308 c) Article 320 d) Article 324
✅ Ans: a) Article 312
88. Who is the highest law officer of India?
a) Chief Justice b) Law Minister c) Attorney General d) Solicitor General
✅ Ans: c) Attorney General
89. The Attorney General is appointed under:
a) Article 74 b) Article 76 c) Article 124 d) Article 32
✅ Ans: b) Article 76
90. The Fifth Schedule deals with:
a) Union and State relations b) Administration of SC/STs
c) Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes
d) Languages
✅ Ans: c) Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes
91. The Sixth Schedule deals with:
a) Anti-defection b) Land reforms
c) Tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
d) Emergency provisions
✅ Ans: c)
92. The Ninth Schedule was added by which Amendment?
a) 1st Amendment b) 42nd Amendment c) 44th Amendment d) 86th Amendment
✅ Ans: a) 1st Amendment
93. What is the purpose of the Ninth Schedule?
a) Land reforms immune from judicial review
b) Protection of minorities
c) Environmental laws
d) Electoral laws
✅ Ans: a)
94. The Tenth Schedule is related to:
a) Panchayati Raj b) SC/STs c) Anti-defection law d) Finance Commission
✅ Ans: c)
95. The Eleventh Schedule deals with:
a) Municipalities b) Panchayati Raj Institutions
c) Centre-State relations d) Fundamental Duties
✅ Ans: b)
96. The Twelfth Schedule relates to:
a) Union Territories b) Finance distribution
c) Municipalities d) Judiciary
✅ Ans: c)
97. How many languages are currently listed in the Eighth Schedule?
a) 18 b) 20 c) 22 d) 16
✅ Ans: c) 22
98. Which Article provides that Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union?
a) Article 343 b) Article 344 c) Article 348 d) Article 351
✅ Ans: a)
99. The Preamble was amended by:
a) 42nd Amendment b) 44th Amendment c) 1st Amendment d) 86th Amendment
✅ Ans: a)

100. The Constitution came into effect on:
a) 15th August 1947 b) 26th January 1950
c) 26th November 1949 d) 26th January 1949
✅ Ans: b)

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