Interactive Quiz: Specific Relief Act, 1963 (Judicial Services Prep)

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Interactive Quiz: Specific Relief Act, 1963 (Judicial Services Prep)

Instructions: Try to answer each question. After making your choice, check the correct answer and explanation provided below each one.

Q1. Specific relief can be granted for the enforcement of:

  • A) Penal laws

  • B) Personal vendetta

  • C) Individual civil rights

  • D) All of the above

Correct Answer:** C) Individual civil rights **Explanation:** Section 4 allows specific relief only for enforcing individual civil rights—not penal laws or personal grievances.

Q2. Under Section 6, a suit for unlawful dispossession of immovable property must be filed within:

  • A) 1 year

  • B) 3 years

  • C) 6 months

  • D) Anytime before limitation ends

Correct Answer:** C) 6 months **Explanation:** A person dispossessed without legal authority must file a suit **within 6 months**, even without ownership title.

Q3. Which contract cannot be specifically enforced under Section 14?

  • A) Determinable contract

  • B) Contract based on personal qualifications

  • C) Contract with continuous duties

  • D) All of the above

Correct Answer:** D) All of the above **Explanation:** Section 14 lists contracts that are either non-supervisable, personal, or inherently terminable and hence not enforceable.

Q4. As per the 2018 amendment, specific performance is:

  • A) At the discretion of the court

  • B) Mandated unless barred under specific sections

  • C) Available only for Government contracts

  • D) Optional only in commercial contracts

Correct Answer:** B) Mandated unless barred under specific sections **Explanation:** Section 10 (post-amendment) mandates enforcement unless excluded under Sections 14 or 16.

Q5. Who can file for specific performance under Section 15?

  • A) Stranger to the contract

  • B) Party to contract or legal representative

  • C) Government only

  • D) Any interested person

Correct Answer:** B) Party to contract or legal representative **Explanation:** Section 15 defines the eligible entities including successors and LLPs in case of amalgamation. 

Q6. Substituted performance is dealt with under:

  • A) Section 14A

  • B) Section 20

  • C) Section 23

  • D) Section 26

Correct Answer:** B) Section 20 **Explanation:** After the 2018 amendment, Section 20 enables a party to get a contract executed through a third party after notice. 

Q7. Mandatory Injunctions are governed by:

  • A) Section 36

  • B) Section 38

  • C) Section 39

  • D) Section 40

Correct Answer:** C) Section 39 **Explanation:** Mandatory injunctions compel an act to be performed to prevent breach of obligation. 

Q8. Suit for declaration of legal character/right is under:

  • A) Section 26

  • B) Section 31

  • C) Section 34

  • D) Section 20A

Correct Answer:** C) Section 34 **Explanation:** A declaration suit under Section 34 helps affirm a legal character or right to property. 

Q9. As per Section 20C, suit must be disposed of within:

  • A) 3 months

  • B) 12 months

  • C) 18 months

  • D) 24 months

Correct Answer:** B) 12 months **Explanation:** Section 20C requires time-bound disposal within 12 months (extendable by 6 months)

Q10. Injunctions are refused when:

  • A) Plaintiff has no personal interest

  • B) Performance cannot be enforced

  • C) It delays infrastructure projects

  • D) All of the above

Correct Answer:** D) All of the above **Explanation:** Section 41 outlines all these grounds as valid reasons to refuse injunctions.

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