Mock Test (1-30 Questions) based on the RJS 2024 pattern, integrating new criminal laws

 

 Mock Test (50 Questions) based on the RJS 2024 pattern, integrating new criminal laws — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) — along with traditional subjects like CPC, Constitution, TPA, and others.

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📝 RJS 2025 Mock Test – Pattern-Based | 50 Questions | No Negative Marking

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⚖ SECTION A: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS)

Q1. Under BNS, 2023, which of the following offences is punishable with death?

1. Organised crime

2. Murder

3. Terrorism resulting in death

4. All of the above
   ✅ Ans: 4

Q2. Under Section 69 of BNS, abetment requires:

1. Mere knowledge of crime

2. Instigation, conspiracy or aiding

3. Threat to commit crime

4. Filing a false complaint
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q3. Theft as defined under BNS is complete when:

1. There is dishonest intention

2. Property is taken without consent

3. Property is moved

4. All of the above
   ✅ Ans: 4

Q4. Which section of BNS deals with causing death by negligence?

1. Section 106

2. Section 104

3. Section 109

4. Section 113
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q5. Sexual intercourse by husband with his wife during separation is:

1. No offence

2. Rape

3. Cruelty

4. Sexual offence under Section 64
   ✅ Ans: 4

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⚖ SECTION B: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS)

Q6. BNSS replaces which law?

1. Indian Penal Code

2. Indian Evidence Act

3. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973

4. None
   ✅ Ans: 3

Q7. Section 35 of BNSS deals with:

1. Arrest without warrant

2. Detention by magistrate

3. Duties of police officer

4. Search of premises
   ✅ Ans: 1

Q8. Maximum permissible police custody under BNSS is:

1. 10 days

2. 15 days

3. 60 days

4. 30 days
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q9. Victim's right to receive information during investigation is under:

1. Section 4

2. Section 377

3. Section 254

4. Section 15
   ✅ Ans: 3

Q10. BNSS recognizes e-FIR in which type of cases?

1. Cognizable only

2. Non-cognizable

3. Economic offences

4. Any offence
   ✅ Ans: 1

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⚖ SECTION C: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)

Q11. Primary evidence under BSA is defined in:

1. Section 63

2. Section 55

3. Section 57

4. Section 58
   ✅ Ans: 4

Q12. A confession made to a police officer is:

1. Always admissible

2. Inadmissible unless made in court

3. Admissible if recorded by magistrate

4. Admissible if voluntary
   ✅ Ans: 3

Q13. Section 23 of BSA deals with:

1. Dying declaration

2. Admissions

3. Confession

4. Public documents
   ✅ Ans: 1

Q14. Expert opinion is relevant under:

1. Section 33

2. Section 45

3. Section 56

4. Section 50
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q15. Which of the following is NOT secondary evidence?

1. Photocopy

2. Certified copy

3. Oral account of contents

4. Original document
   ✅ Ans: 4

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⚖ SECTION D: CPC, Constitution, TPA, Specific Relief, Interpretation

Q16. Order 20 Rule 12 of CPC is related to:

1. Decree in partition

2. Decree in pre-emption

3. Possession and mesne profits

4. Administration suit
   ✅ Ans: 3

Q17. Which of the following Articles is related to equal justice and free legal aid?

1. Article 14

2. Article 21A

3. Article 39A

4. Article 32
   ✅ Ans: 3

Q18. Section 63 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with:

1. Accession to mortgaged property

2. Simple mortgage

3. Redemption

4. Foreclosure
   ✅ Ans: 1

Q19. Specific performance of a contract is governed under:

1. Section 10 of Specific Relief Act

2. Section 5

3. Section 9

4. Section 12
   ✅ Ans: 1

Q20. “Ut Res Magis Valeat Quam Pereat” refers to:

1. Golden Rule

2. Harmonious Construction

3. Ejusdem Generis

4. Literal Rule
   ✅ Ans: 2

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⚖ SECTION E: Constitutional & Statutory Current Affairs

Q21. Which fundamental right is affected by internet shutdowns?

1. Article 14

2. Article 19(1)(a)

3. Article 20

4. Article 22
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q22. The NJAC was struck down for violating:

1. Basic structure

2. Separation of powers

3. Federalism

4. Equality
   ✅ Ans: 1

Q23. Right to Privacy was declared fundamental in:

1. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI

2. K.S. Puttaswamy v. UOI

3. Common Cause v. UOI

4. Shreya Singhal v. UOI
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q24. Doctrine of Eclipse applies to:

1. Post-constitutional laws

2. Pre-constitutional laws

3. Judgments

4. Ordinances
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q25. ‘Res judicata’ is based on the principle of:

1. Justice

2. Finality

3. Fair hearing

4. Equality
   ✅ Ans: 2

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⚖ SECTION F: Miscellaneous (Current legal developments, Case laws, Maxims)

Q26. Same-sex marriage judgment in Supriyo v. UOI stated:

1. Marriage is a fundamental right

2. State has obligation to legalize same-sex marriage

3. No fundamental right to marriage for same-sex couples

4. Uniform Civil Code applies
   ✅ Ans: 3

Q27. The maxim "Nemo moriturus praesumitur mentire" applies to:

1. Expert evidence

2. Estoppel

3. Dying declaration

4. Confession
   ✅ Ans: 3

Q28. Legal aid in India is mandated under:

1. Article 21A

2. Article 39A

3. Section 304 CrPC

4. Both 2 and 3
   ✅ Ans: 4

Q29. Cross-decree concept is dealt in CPC under:

1. Order 20 Rule 18

2. Order 21 Rule 19

3. Order 41 Rule 22

4. Section 100
   ✅ Ans: 2

Q30. A lease determined by forfeiture under TPA requires:

1. Notice under Section 106

2. Notice under Section 111(g)

3. Registration

4. Mutation
   ✅ Ans: 2