Uttarakhand Judiciary Prelims Mock Test with 50 MCQs, carefully structured as per the actual exam pattern—covering general knowledge, substantive and procedural laws, personal laws, TPA, and Evidence Act.

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Uttarakhand Judiciary Prelims Mock Test – Set 4 (50 Questions)

📘 PART A: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & CURRENT AFFAIRS (10 Questions)

  1. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was adopted on—
    (a) 26 January 1950
    (b) 15 August 1947
    (c) 26 November 1949
    (d) 1 January 1950
    Ans: (c)

  2. Which of the following is not part of the Basic Structure Doctrine?
    (a) Federalism
    (b) Separation of Powers
    (c) Universal Adult Franchise
    (d) Right to Property
    Ans: (d)

  3. India’s membership in BRICS includes—
    (a) 4 countries
    (b) 5 countries
    (c) 6 countries
    (d) 7 countries
    Ans: (b)

  4. The term “Union of States” is found in which part of the Constitution?
    (a) Part I
    (b) Part II
    (c) Part III
    (d) Part IV
    Ans: (a)

  5. International Court of Justice judges hold office for—
    (a) 5 years
    (b) 9 years
    (c) 10 years
    (d) 6 years
    Ans: (b)

  6. Which constitutional amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj?
    (a) 42nd
    (b) 44th
    (c) 73rd
    (d) 86th
    Ans: (c)

  7. Which country assumed G-20 presidency in 2023?
    (a) China
    (b) India
    (c) USA
    (d) Brazil
    Ans: (b)

  8. Which Schedule contains subjects under Union, State, and Concurrent Lists?
    (a) First
    (b) Seventh
    (c) Ninth
    (d) Tenth
    Ans: (b)

  9. The motto of the Supreme Court of India is—
    (a) Satyamev Jayate
    (b) Dharmo Rakshati Rakshitah
    (c) Yato Dharma Tato Jaya
    (d) Nyaya Pranali
    Ans: (c)

  10. National Human Rights Commission was established in—
    (a) 1993
    (b) 1990
    (c) 1995
    (d) 1992
    Ans: (a)

⚖️ PART B: INDIAN PENAL CODE (10 Questions)

  1. Forgery is defined under—
    (a) Section 464
    (b) Section 467
    (c) Section 468
    (d) Section 471
    Ans: (a)

  2. Harbouring a deserter from armed forces is punishable under—
    (a) Section 132
    (b) Section 134
    (c) Section 136
    (d) Section 139
    Ans: (c)

  3. Death due to dowry demand within 7 years of marriage is covered under—
    (a) Section 302
    (b) Section 304
    (c) Section 304B
    (d) Section 498A
    Ans: (c)

  4. Kidnapping for ransom is punishable under—
    (a) Section 363
    (b) Section 364
    (c) Section 364A
    (d) Section 365
    Ans: (c)

  5. Mischief is defined under—
    (a) Section 425
    (b) Section 419
    (c) Section 420
    (d) Section 428
    Ans: (a)

  6. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt is defined under—
    (a) Section 321
    (b) Section 322
    (c) Section 323
    (d) Section 325
    Ans: (b)

  7. Wrongful restraint is defined under—
    (a) Section 339
    (b) Section 340
    (c) Section 341
    (d) Section 342
    Ans: (a)

  8. Criminal trespass is defined under—
    (a) Section 441
    (b) Section 442
    (c) Section 443
    (d) Section 444
    Ans: (a)

  9. Offence of affray is defined under—
    (a) Section 145
    (b) Section 159
    (c) Section 141
    (d) Section 160
    Ans: (b)

  10. House trespass with preparation for causing hurt is covered under—
    (a) Section 451
    (b) Section 452
    (c) Section 453
    (d) Section 454
    Ans: (b)

📘 PART C: CRPC (10 Questions)

  1. Charge is defined under—
    (a) Section 2(b)
    (b) Section 2(c)
    (c) Section 2(f)
    (d) Section 2(g)
    Ans: (d)

  2. Cognizable offence is defined in—
    (a) Section 2(l)
    (b) Section 2(c)
    (c) Section 2(j)
    (d) Section 2(k)
    Ans: (c)

  3. Summons-case is one not being—
    (a) Cognizable
    (b) Triable by Court of Session
    (c) Warrant-case
    (d) Bailable
    Ans: (c)

  4. An accused can be discharged in warrant case under—
    (a) Section 239
    (b) Section 245
    (c) Section 227
    (d) Section 228
    Ans: (a)

  5. Who is empowered to issue search warrant?
    (a) Executive Magistrate
    (b) Judicial Magistrate
    (c) Police Officer
    (d) Public Prosecutor
    Ans: (b)

  6. Person arrested without warrant must be produced before Magistrate within—
    (a) 24 hours
    (b) 12 hours
    (c) 48 hours
    (d) 72 hours
    Ans: (a)

  7. Complaint is defined under—
    (a) Section 2(a)
    (b) Section 2(b)
    (c) Section 2(c)
    (d) Section 2(d)
    Ans: (d)

  8. Summary trial provision is under—
    (a) Section 260–265
    (b) Section 200–209
    (c) Section 130–140
    (d) Section 250–255
    Ans: (a)

  9. Police diary is maintained under—
    (a) Section 172
    (b) Section 154
    (c) Section 161
    (d) Section 163
    Ans: (a)

  10. Section 300 of CrPC deals with—
    (a) Double jeopardy
    (b) Confession
    (c) Bail
    (d) Summary trial
    Ans: (a)

📕 PART D: CPC (5 Questions)

  1. Interpleader suit is under—
    (a) Section 88
    (b) Section 89
    (c) Section 90
    (d) Order X
    Ans: (a)

  2. Suits relating to immovable property are filed where—
    (a) Defendant resides
    (b) Plaintiff resides
    (c) Property is situated
    (d) Business is conducted
    Ans: (c)

  3. When does limitation for review start?
    (a) From filing
    (b) From decree
    (c) From knowledge
    (d) From order
    Ans: (d)

  4. Ex parte decree can be set aside under—
    (a) Order 9 Rule 13
    (b) Order 9 Rule 7
    (c) Order 17 Rule 1
    (d) Order 23 Rule 3
    Ans: (a)

  5. Res Subjudice is covered under—
    (a) Section 10
    (b) Section 11
    (c) Section 13
    (d) Section 14
    Ans: (a)

📗 PART E: EVIDENCE ACT (5 Questions)

  1. A dying declaration is admissible under—
    (a) Section 32(1)
    (b) Section 60
    (c) Section 33
    (d) Section 34
    Ans: (a)

  2. Presumption regarding marriage is in—
    (a) Section 114
    (b) Section 50
    (c) Section 112
    (d) Section 41
    Ans: (c)

  3. Judge may ask questions under—
    (a) Section 165
    (b) Section 166
    (c) Section 160
    (d) Section 164
    Ans: (a)

  4. Professional communication is protected under—
    (a) Section 126
    (b) Section 124
    (c) Section 122
    (d) Section 125
    Ans: (a)

  5. Admission by partner is binding on firm under—
    (a) Section 19
    (b) Section 20
    (c) Section 21
    (d) Section 23
    Ans: (a)

📘 PART F: PERSONAL & PROPERTY LAWS (10 Questions)

  1. Section 7 of HMA defines—
    (a) Ceremonies for Hindu marriage
    (b) Divorce
    (c) Restitution
    (d) Maintenance
    Ans: (a)

  2. Hindu daughter became coparcener by—
    (a) 2005 Amendment
    (b) 2002 Amendment
    (c) 1985 Amendment
    (d) 1956 Amendment
    Ans: (a)

  3. Section 6 of TPA defines—
    (a) Transferable property
    (b) Immovable property
    (c) Movable property
    (d) Lease
    Ans: (a)

  4. Doctrine of part performance is under—
    (a) Section 53A
    (b) Section 54
    (c) Section 56
    (d) Section 57
    Ans: (a)

  5. Muslim marriage is a—
    (a) Contract
    (b) Sacrament
    (c) Will
    (d) Mortgage
    Ans: (a)

  6. Which is not essential for valid Hiba?
    (a) Delivery
    (b) Acceptance
    (c) Declaration
    (d) Written document
    Ans: (d)

  7. Customary divorce under HMA is preserved under—
    (a) Section 29(2)
    (b) Section 13B
    (c) Section 11
    (d) Section 16
    Ans: (a)

  8. Muta marriage is recognized in—
    (a) Shia Law
    (b) Sunni Law
    (c) Hanafi Law
    (d) Maliki Law
    Ans: (a)

  9. Adoption can be done under—
    (a) Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act
    (b) Hindu Marriage Act
    (c) Transfer of Property Act
    (d) Indian Succession Act
    Ans: (a)

  10. A Muslim wife’s right to maintenance is available under—
    (a) Personal Law
    (b) CrPC
    (c) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d)

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