Uttarakhand Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test with 50 brand-new MCQs based on the actual exam pattern—balanced across General Knowledge and all major law subjects, with answers and explanations.

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Uttarakhand Judiciary Prelims Mock Test – Set 3 (50 Questions)

📘 PART A: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & CURRENT AFFAIRS (10 Questions)

  1. Which country has withdrawn from the United Nations Human Rights Council in recent years?
    (a) China
    (b) Russia
    (c) United States
    (d) Iran
    Ans: (c)
    Explanation: The U.S. withdrew in 2018 citing bias against Israel.

  2. Which schedule of the Constitution contains the anti-defection law?
    (a) 7th Schedule
    (b) 9th Schedule
    (c) 10th Schedule
    (d) 11th Schedule
    Ans: (c)

  3. Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during emergency?
    (a) Article 14
    (b) Article 19
    (c) Article 21
    (d) Article 22
    Ans: (c)

  4. Which Indian Judge served at the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
    (a) R.C. Lahoti
    (b) Fathima Beevi
    (c) Dalveer Bhandari
    (d) K.G. Balakrishnan
    Ans: (c)

  5. Which committee recommended Panchayati Raj in India?
    (a) Mandal Committee
    (b) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
    (c) Sarkaria Committee
    (d) Punchhi Committee
    Ans: (b)

  6. The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by which amendment?
    (a) 42nd Amendment
    (b) 44th Amendment
    (c) 52nd Amendment
    (d) 61st Amendment
    Ans: (a)

  7. Which of the following is not an official language under the Eighth Schedule?
    (a) Bodo
    (b) English
    (c) Santhali
    (d) Konkani
    Ans: (b)

  8. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in—
    (a) 2008
    (b) 2009
    (c) 2010
    (d) 2011
    Ans: (c)

  9. Which Article empowers the President to appoint the Prime Minister?
    (a) Article 74
    (b) Article 75
    (c) Article 76
    (d) Article 77
    Ans: (b)

  10. Who was the first female Chief Minister of an Indian state?
    (a) Sucheta Kripalani
    (b) Sarojini Naidu
    (c) Indira Gandhi
    (d) Annie Besant
    Ans: (a)

⚖️ PART B: INDIAN PENAL CODE (10 Questions)

  1. Definition of “Public Servant” is given under—
    (a) Section 21
    (b) Section 19
    (c) Section 20
    (d) Section 22
    Ans: (a)

  2. Rape by a husband upon his minor wife is—
    (a) Not punishable
    (b) Punishable under exception
    (c) Punishable if wife is below 18
    (d) Not defined
    Ans: (c)

  3. Which section defines ‘Culpable Homicide’?
    (a) Section 299
    (b) Section 300
    (c) Section 302
    (d) Section 304
    Ans: (a)

  4. Which section deals with unnatural offences?
    (a) Section 375
    (b) Section 376
    (c) Section 377
    (d) Section 378
    Ans: (c)

  5. Dacoity is committed when the number of offenders is—
    (a) Two
    (b) Three
    (c) Four
    (d) Five or more
    Ans: (d)

  6. Punishment for attempt to murder is under—
    (a) Section 304
    (b) Section 307
    (c) Section 308
    (d) Section 309
    Ans: (b)

  7. Definition of 'Movable Property' in IPC is under—
    (a) Section 20
    (b) Section 21
    (c) Section 22
    (d) Section 23
    Ans: (c)

  8. Defamation is dealt with under—
    (a) Section 500
    (b) Section 501
    (c) Section 499
    (d) Section 498
    Ans: (c)

  9. Criminal intimidation is defined under—
    (a) Section 504
    (b) Section 505
    (c) Section 506
    (d) Section 503
    Ans: (d)

  10. Dishonestly is defined under—
    (a) Section 23
    (b) Section 24
    (c) Section 25
    (d) Section 26
    Ans: (b)

📘 PART C: CRPC (10 Questions)

  1. Search warrant is issued under—
    (a) Section 93
    (b) Section 94
    (c) Section 95
    (d) Section 96
    Ans: (a)

  2. Bail in bailable offences is a matter of—
    (a) Judicial discretion
    (b) Right
    (c) Police decision
    (d) Executive order
    Ans: (b)

  3. Who is authorized to order police custody of accused?
    (a) Police
    (b) Sessions Judge
    (c) Magistrate
    (d) Executive Magistrate
    Ans: (c)

  4. Provisions for plea bargaining are in—
    (a) Chapter XXI-A
    (b) Chapter XXI
    (c) Chapter XXII
    (d) Chapter XXIII
    Ans: (a)

  5. Power to record dying declaration lies with—
    (a) Police officer
    (b) Executive Magistrate
    (c) Judicial Magistrate
    (d) Any person
    Ans: (b)

  6. Warrant case relates to offences—
    (a) Punishable with fine
    (b) Punishable with imprisonment less than 2 years
    (c) Punishable with death/life/≥2 years
    (d) Bailable offences
    Ans: (c)

  7. First Information Report (FIR) is recorded under—
    (a) Section 154
    (b) Section 155
    (c) Section 156
    (d) Section 157
    Ans: (a)

  8. Judgment of acquittal by Magistrate can be appealed under—
    (a) Section 378
    (b) Section 374
    (c) Section 384
    (d) Section 386
    Ans: (a)

  9. Maximum period of police custody is—
    (a) 7 days
    (b) 10 days
    (c) 14 days
    (d) 15 days
    Ans: (d)

  10. Revision power lies with—
    (a) High Court only
    (b) Sessions Court only
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) Magistrate
    Ans: (c)

📕 PART D: CPC (5 Questions)

  1. Mesne profits are defined under—
    (a) Section 2(1)
    (b) Section 2(4)
    (c) Section 2(12)
    (d) Section 2(5)
    Ans: (c)

  2. Restitution is dealt with under—
    (a) Section 144
    (b) Section 151
    (c) Section 148
    (d) Order XXI
    Ans: (a)

  3. Temporary injunction is governed by—
    (a) Order XXXVIII
    (b) Order XXXIX
    (c) Order XL
    (d) Order XLI
    Ans: (b)

  4. Court of Small Causes cannot try—
    (a) Title suits
    (b) Recovery suits
    (c) Rent suits
    (d) Summary suits
    Ans: (a)

  5. Order IX Rule 13 deals with—
    (a) Setting aside ex parte decree
    (b) Execution of decree
    (c) Review
    (d) Amendment of decree
    Ans: (a)

📗 PART E: EVIDENCE ACT (5 Questions)

  1. Relevant facts forming same transaction are—
    (a) Res Gestae
    (b) Admission
    (c) Confession
    (d) Motive
    Ans: (a)

  2. Admission is defined under—
    (a) Section 17
    (b) Section 18
    (c) Section 19
    (d) Section 20
    Ans: (a)

  3. Secondary evidence includes—
    (a) Certified copies
    (b) Oral evidence
    (c) Direct evidence
    (d) None
    Ans: (a)

  4. Hostile witness is dealt under—
    (a) Section 154
    (b) Section 145
    (c) Section 132
    (d) Section 155
    Ans: (a)

  5. Plea of alibi is covered under—
    (a) Section 11
    (b) Section 10
    (c) Section 8
    (d) Section 12
    Ans: (a)

📘 PART F: PERSONAL & PROPERTY LAWS (10 Questions)

  1. Which section of HMA talks about judicial separation?
    (a) Section 10
    (b) Section 9
    (c) Section 11
    (d) Section 13
    Ans: (a)

  2. Hindu Succession Act applies to—
    (a) Hindus
    (b) Buddhists
    (c) Sikhs
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d)

  3. Guardian for minor’s property under Hindu law is—
    (a) De jure guardian
    (b) De facto guardian
    (c) Testamentary guardian
    (d) Appointed by court
    Ans: (a)

  4. Transfer to unborn person is valid when—
    (a) Life interest precedes
    (b) Direct transfer is made
    (c) Property is movable
    (d) Consent is taken
    Ans: (a)

  5. Muslim law recognizes marriage as—
    (a) Contract
    (b) Sacrament
    (c) Voidable
    (d) None
    Ans: (a)

  6. Talaq-ul-biddat was declared unconstitutional in—
    (a) Shayara Bano v. Union of India
    (b) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
    (c) Daniel Latifi case
    (d) Mohd. Ahmed Khan case
    Ans: (a)

  7. Muslim wife’s right to maintenance post-divorce was settled in—
    (a) Shah Bano case
    (b) Danial Latifi case
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) None
    Ans: (c)

  8. Legitimacy of children of void marriage under HMA—
    (a) Section 16
    (b) Section 12
    (c) Section 13
    (d) Section 14
    Ans: (a)

  9. Waiver of right to redeem under TPA is—
    (a) Void
    (b) Valid
    (c) Voidable
    (d) Conditional
    Ans: (a)

  10. Customary divorce under HMA is preserved under—
    (a) Section 29(2)
    (b) Section 13B
    (c) Section 11
    (d) Section 16
    Ans: (a)


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