Uttarakhand Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test based on the same pattern – 50 new MCQs with answers and brief explanations, covering a balanced mix of law subjects and general awareness.


Uttarakhand Judiciary Prelims Mock Test – Set 2 (50 Questions)

📘 PART A: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & CURRENT AFFAIRS (10 Questions)

  1. The Indian Constitution came into effect on—
    (a) 26 January 1950
    (b) 15 August 1947
    (c) 26 November 1949
    (d) 2 October 1950
    Ans: (a)
    Explanation: Constitution was adopted on 26 Nov 1949, enforced from 26 Jan 1950.

  2. Directive Principles of State Policy are—
    (a) Enforceable
    (b) Justiciable
    (c) Non-justiciable
    (d) Fundamental Rights
    Ans: (c)

  3. ‘One Nation One Election’ is related to—
    (a) Simultaneous polls across India
    (b) One voter list
    (c) Local governance reform
    (d) President’s election only
    Ans: (a)

  4. Who is the current Chief Justice of India?
    Use current info if required.
    (a) U.U. Lalit
    (b) D.Y. Chandrachud
    (c) N.V. Ramana
    (d) R. Banumathi
    Ans: (b)

  5. India became a member of United Nations in—
    (a) 1945
    (b) 1946
    (c) 1947
    (d) 1950
    Ans: (a)

  6. Which of the following is not a writ under Article 32?
    (a) Certiorari
    (b) Mandamus
    (c) Quo Warranto
    (d) Affidavit
    Ans: (d)

  7. Which country presides over G20 in 2023?
    (a) Brazil
    (b) India
    (c) Indonesia
    (d) Saudi Arabia
    Ans: (b)

  8. Which Article declares India as a Union of States?
    (a) Article 1
    (b) Article 2
    (c) Article 3
    (d) Article 4
    Ans: (a)

  9. Where is the headquarters of International Court of Justice?
    (a) Geneva
    (b) New York
    (c) Paris
    (d) The Hague
    Ans: (d)

  10. Which state has the largest number of seats in Lok Sabha?
    (a) Uttar Pradesh
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Bihar
    (d) Madhya Pradesh
    Ans: (a)


⚖️ PART B: INDIAN PENAL CODE (10 Questions)

  1. Right to private defence of property does not extend to death in case of—
    (a) Robbery
    (b) House-breaking by night
    (c) Mischief
    (d) Attempt to murder
    Ans: (c)

  2. Attempt to commit suicide is punishable under—
    (a) Section 304
    (b) Section 309
    (c) Section 306
    (d) Section 308
    Ans: (b)

  3. Definition of grievous hurt is under—
    (a) Section 320
    (b) Section 321
    (c) Section 319
    (d) Section 322
    Ans: (a)

  4. Punishment for dacoity is under—
    (a) Section 395
    (b) Section 392
    (c) Section 398
    (d) Section 399
    Ans: (a)

  5. A hangman executing a death sentence is protected under—
    (a) Section 77
    (b) Section 78
    (c) Section 79
    (d) Section 80
    Ans: (b)

  6. Punishment for rape is found under—
    (a) Section 375
    (b) Section 376
    (c) Section 377
    (d) Section 378
    Ans: (b)

  7. Criminal force is defined under—
    (a) Section 349
    (b) Section 350
    (c) Section 351
    (d) Section 352
    Ans: (b)

  8. A person under intoxication without knowledge is protected under—
    (a) Section 84
    (b) Section 85
    (c) Section 86
    (d) Section 88
    Ans: (b)

  9. Extortion is defined under—
    (a) Section 384
    (b) Section 385
    (c) Section 386
    (d) Section 383
    Ans: (d)

  10. Wrongful confinement is under—
    (a) Section 340
    (b) Section 341
    (c) Section 342
    (d) Section 343
    Ans: (a)


📘 PART C: CRPC (10 Questions)

  1. Anticipatory bail is granted under—
    (a) Section 437
    (b) Section 438
    (c) Section 439
    (d) Section 436
    Ans: (b)

  2. Police report (charge sheet) is filed under—
    (a) Section 170
    (b) Section 172
    (c) Section 173
    (d) Section 174
    Ans: (c)

  3. Summary trials are conducted under—
    (a) Section 260–265
    (b) Section 300
    (c) Section 250
    (d) Section 210
    Ans: (a)

  4. Who can compound offences under CrPC?
    (a) Magistrate only
    (b) Complainant only
    (c) Public Prosecutor only
    (d) High Court only
    Ans: (b)

  5. Appeal from Magistrate to Sessions Court is under—
    (a) Section 372
    (b) Section 374
    (c) Section 375
    (d) Section 381
    Ans: (a)

  6. Victim compensation scheme is under—
    (a) Section 357A
    (b) Section 357
    (c) Section 321
    (d) Section 322
    Ans: (a)

  7. Cognizance of offence by Magistrate is under—
    (a) Section 190
    (b) Section 173
    (c) Section 200
    (d) Section 154
    Ans: (a)

  8. Inquest report is prepared under—
    (a) Section 173
    (b) Section 174
    (c) Section 175
    (d) Section 176
    Ans: (b)

  9. Procedure for trial before Court of Session is in—
    (a) Chapter XVIII
    (b) Chapter XIX
    (c) Chapter XX
    (d) Chapter XXI
    Ans: (a)

  10. Maximum sentence that Chief Judicial Magistrate can impose—
    (a) 7 years
    (b) 3 years
    (c) Life
    (d) 10 years
    Ans: (a)


📕 PART D: CPC (5 Questions)

  1. Execution of decree is governed by—
    (a) Order XXI
    (b) Order XX
    (c) Order XIX
    (d) Order XXII
    Ans: (a)

  2. Interlocutory orders are—
    (a) Final
    (b) Interim
    (c) Executable
    (d) Void
    Ans: (b)

  3. Who can file an appeal?
    (a) Party aggrieved
    (b) Public
    (c) Police
    (d) Court
    Ans: (a)

  4. Commission for local investigation is under—
    (a) Order XXVI
    (b) Order XX
    (c) Order XXII
    (d) Order XXI
    Ans: (a)

  5. Suit for declaration is under—
    (a) Section 34 Specific Relief Act
    (b) Order I Rule 10
    (c) Section 9 CPC
    (d) Order VI Rule 1
    Ans: (a)


📗 PART E: EVIDENCE ACT (5 Questions)

  1. Burden of proof is on—
    (a) One who alleges
    (b) Victim
    (c) Judge
    (d) Witness
    Ans: (a)

  2. Presumption as to dowry death—
    (a) Section 113A
    (b) Section 113B
    (c) Section 114
    (d) Section 114A
    Ans: (b)

  3. Professional communication is protected under—
    (a) Section 122
    (b) Section 126
    (c) Section 124
    (d) Section 128
    Ans: (b)

  4. Hearsay evidence is—
    (a) Admissible
    (b) Direct
    (c) Inadmissible
    (d) Primary
    Ans: (c)

  5. Confession to Magistrate under Section 164 is—
    (a) Admissible
    (b) Inadmissible
    (c) Requires FIR
    (d) None
    Ans: (a)


📘 PART F: PERSONAL & PROPERTY LAWS (10 Questions)

  1. Section 13B of HMA provides for—
    (a) Divorce by mutual consent
    (b) Judicial separation
    (c) Void marriage
    (d) Maintenance
    Ans: (a)

  2. Void marriages under HMA are covered under—
    (a) Section 11
    (b) Section 12
    (c) Section 13
    (d) Section 14
    Ans: (a)

  3. Waqf is—
    (a) Temporary gift
    (b) Permanent dedication of property
    (c) Will
    (d) Void transaction
    Ans: (b)

  4. ‘Hiba’ refers to—
    (a) Will
    (b) Sale
    (c) Gift
    (d) Mortgage
    Ans: (c)

  5. Property transferable to unborn person under TPA—
    (a) Is valid if life interest precedes
    (b) Is void
    (c) Is illegal
    (d) None
    Ans: (a)

  6. Part performance doctrine under TPA—
    (a) Section 53A
    (b) Section 52
    (c) Section 54
    (d) Section 55
    Ans: (a)

  7. Divorced wife is entitled to maintenance under—
    (a) CrPC
    (b) Muslim Law
    (c) Personal Law
    (d) All of these
    Ans: (d)

  8. Daughters become coparceners after—
    (a) 2005 Amendment
    (b) 2010 Amendment
    (c) 1956 Act
    (d) None
    Ans: (a)

  9. Section 29(2) of HMA deals with—
    (a) Customary divorce
    (b) Mutual consent
    (c) Legitimacy
    (d) Age
    Ans: (a)

  10. Section 2 of HMA defines—
    (a) Hindu
    (b) Marriage
    (c) Divorce
    (d) Court
    Ans: (a)

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