Uttarakhand Judicial Services Preliminary Examination pattern based mock test of 50 questions—balanced across key subjects, with answers and brief explanations.

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Uttarakhand Judicial Services Preliminary Examination pattern  mock test of 50 questions—balanced across key subjects, with answers and brief explanations.

✅ Uttarakhand Judiciary Prelims Mock Test – Set 1 (50 Questions)

📘 PART A: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & CURRENT AFFAIRS (10 Questions)

  1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
    (a) Article 14
    (b) Article 17
    (c) Article 15
    (d) Article 19
    Ans: (b)
    Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability.

  2. India’s Permanent Mission to the UN is headquartered in—
    (a) Geneva
    (b) Washington D.C.
    (c) New York
    (d) Paris
    Ans: (c)

  3. Which amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Constitution?
    (a) 42nd
    (b) 44th
    (c) 52nd
    (d) 61st
    Ans: (a)

  4. Who was the first female judge of the Supreme Court of India?
    (a) Indira Banerjee
    (b) Fathima Beevi
    (c) Ruma Pal
    (d) Indu Malhotra
    Ans: (b)

  5. UN Day is celebrated on—
    (a) 24 October
    (b) 14 April
    (c) 5 June
    (d) 10 December
    Ans: (a)

  6. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
    (a) Equal pay for equal work
    (b) Promotion of international peace
    (c) Free legal aid
    (d) Right to constitutional remedies
    Ans: (d)

  7. The President of India addresses the first session of—
    (a) Lok Sabha
    (b) Rajya Sabha
    (c) Parliament after every general election
    (d) Supreme Court
    Ans: (c)

  8. Which body replaced the UN Commission on Human Rights?
    (a) Human Rights Tribunal
    (b) Human Rights Council
    (c) International Criminal Court
    (d) Amnesty Council
    Ans: (b)

  9. Which organ of the UN is primarily responsible for maintaining international peace and security?
    (a) General Assembly
    (b) Economic and Social Council
    (c) Security Council
    (d) Trusteeship Council
    Ans: (c)

  10. Which country is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
    (a) USA
    (b) Russia
    (c) Germany
    (d) China
    Ans: (c)

⚖️ PART B: INDIAN PENAL CODE (10 Questions)

  1. Right of private defence of body extends to causing death when—
    (a) Theft occurs
    (b) Simple hurt is caused
    (c) Danger of grievous hurt or death
    (d) Property is stolen
    Ans: (c)

  2. Criminal conspiracy is defined under—
    (a) Section 120
    (b) Section 120A
    (c) Section 34
    (d) Section 109
    Ans: (b)

  3. Disclosure of rape victim’s identity is punishable under—
    (a) Section 228A
    (b) Section 376A
    (c) Section 354D
    (d) Section 509
    Ans: (a)

  4. Section 82 IPC deals with—
    (a) General exceptions
    (b) Act of minor under 7 years
    (c) Public nuisance
    (d) Theft
    Ans: (b)

  5. Dowry death is punishable under—
    (a) Section 498A
    (b) Section 304
    (c) Section 304B
    (d) Section 306
    Ans: (c)

  6. Cheating is defined in—
    (a) Section 403
    (b) Section 420
    (c) Section 415
    (d) Section 406
    Ans: (c)

  7. Attempt to commit an offence is dealt under—
    (a) Section 511
    (b) Section 107
    (c) Section 109
    (d) Section 116
    Ans: (a)

  8. Number of punishments in IPC listed under Section 53?
    (a) 4
    (b) 5
    (c) 6
    (d) 7
    Ans: (c)

  9. Hurt becomes grievous when—
    (a) Slight pain occurs
    (b) Tooth is lost
    (c) Bruise occurs
    (d) Injury is temporary
    Ans: (b)

  10. Murder is defined under—
    (a) Section 299
    (b) Section 302
    (c) Section 300
    (d) Section 304
    Ans: (c)

📘 PART C: CRPC (10 Questions)

  1. Inherent powers of the High Court under CrPC are under—
    (a) Section 320
    (b) Section 482
    (c) Section 439
    (d) Section 304
    Ans: (b)

  2. Maximum remand under Section 167(2) in serious offences—
    (a) 30 days
    (b) 60 days
    (c) 90 days
    (d) 120 days
    Ans: (c)

  3. Who can compound an offence under CrPC?
    (a) Police
    (b) Magistrate
    (c) Complainant
    (d) Public Prosecutor
    Ans: (c)

  4. Bailable and non-bailable offences are listed in—
    (a) Schedule I
    (b) Section 2
    (c) Section 29
    (d) Schedule II
    Ans: (a)

  5. Security for keeping peace under CrPC is governed by—
    (a) Section 106
    (b) Section 144
    (c) Section 107
    (d) Section 110
    Ans: (c)

  6. Filing of charge sheet is under—
    (a) Section 154
    (b) Section 161
    (c) Section 173
    (d) Section 190
    Ans: (c)

  7. Who can transfer a case under Section 407 CrPC?
    (a) High Court
    (b) Magistrate
    (c) Police
    (d) Collector
    Ans: (a)

  8. Recording of confession is done under—
    (a) Section 161
    (b) Section 164
    (c) Section 167
    (d) Section 202
    Ans: (b)

  9. Cognizable offence means—
    (a) Police cannot arrest
    (b) Arrest without warrant
    (c) Only bailable
    (d) Requires court order
    Ans: (b)

  10. Compounding of offences is governed under—
    (a) Section 320
    (b) Section 319
    (c) Section 317
    (d) Section 321
    Ans: (a)

📘 PART D: CPC (5 Questions)

  1. Res Judicata is under—
    (a) Section 10
    (b) Section 11
    (c) Section 13
    (d) Section 14
    Ans: (b)

  2. Order for substituted service—
    (a) Order 5 Rule 20
    (b) Order 7 Rule 10
    (c) Order 6 Rule 5
    (d) Order 9 Rule 13
    Ans: (a)

  3. Stay of suit is covered under—
    (a) Section 9
    (b) Section 10
    (c) Section 11
    (d) Section 12
    Ans: (b)

  4. Preliminary and final decrees are explained under—
    (a) Section 2(2)
    (b) Section 2(3)
    (c) Section 2(9)
    (d) Section 9
    Ans: (a)

  5. Pleadings include—
    (a) Plaint and WS
    (b) Plaint only
    (c) Evidence
    (d) Summons
    Ans: (a)

📕 PART E: EVIDENCE ACT (5 Questions)

  1. Dying declaration is admissible under—
    (a) Section 27
    (b) Section 32(1)
    (c) Section 33
    (d) Section 35
    Ans: (b)

  2. Estoppel is defined in—
    (a) Section 114
    (b) Section 116
    (c) Section 115
    (d) Section 118
    Ans: (c)

  3. Confession made to police officer is—
    (a) Admissible
    (b) Inadmissible under Section 25
    (c) Admissible if under pressure
    (d) None
    Ans: (b)

  4. Primary evidence is defined in—
    (a) Section 61
    (b) Section 62
    (c) Section 63
    (d) Section 64
    Ans: (b)

  5. Number of witnesses needed to prove a fact—
    (a) One
    (b) Two
    (c) Three
    (d) No specific number
    Ans: (d)

📘 PART F: PERSONAL & PROPERTY LAW (10 Questions)

  1. Restitution of conjugal rights under HMA—
    (a) Section 8
    (b) Section 9
    (c) Section 13
    (d) Section 10
    Ans: (b)

  2. Section 6 of TPA restricts transfer of—
    (a) Right to maintenance
    (b) Future inheritance
    (c) Pensions
    (d) All of these
    Ans: (d)

  3. Ostensible owner is discussed under—
    (a) Section 41 TPA
    (b) Section 43 TPA
    (c) Section 52 TPA
    (d) Section 54 TPA
    Ans: (a)

  4. Voidable marriage under HMA—
    (a) Section 11
    (b) Section 12
    (c) Section 13
    (d) Section 13B
    Ans: (b)

  5. Muslim wife can dissolve marriage under—
    (a) Shariat Act
    (b) Muslim Personal Law
    (c) Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act
    (d) Special Marriage Act
    Ans: (c)

  6. Adoption under Hindu Law is governed by—
    (a) Hindu Marriage Act
    (b) Hindu Succession Act
    (c) Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act
    (d) Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act
    Ans: (d)

  7. Mitakshara is commentary on—
    (a) Manusmriti
    (b) Yajnavalkya Smriti
    (c) Narada Smriti
    (d) Vishnu Smriti
    Ans: (b)

  8. Lis Pendens doctrine is under—
    (a) Section 51
    (b) Section 52
    (c) Section 53
    (d) Section 54
    Ans: (b)

  9. A gift under Muslim law requires—
    (a) Writing
    (b) Possession delivery
    (c) Registration
    (d) Two witnesses
    Ans: (b)

  10. Class I heirs include—
    (a) Son
    (b) Daughter
    (c) Mother
    (d) All of these
    Ans: (d)

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